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This article was so confused and full of error that it just needs restating.
It had Hitler "announcing" the legality approach in 1926 (he did so much earlier, in 1924, and promised as much to Held on 4 Jan 1925 in order to end the Verbotzeit).
It had Prussia banning the NSDAP at the state level in 1922/23 (the Prussian ban on the NSDAP extended considerably longer and was actually still in effect at the time of Bamberg itself)
It had mid-1920s Germany experiencing prosperity under Stresemann, whose chancellorship ended in 1923
It had Hitler "debating" with his subordinates and it even claimed that the conference, which Hitler called unilaterally in response to the northerners' (perceived) "insubordination," was meant to be a debate. Hitler did many things after Landsberg but he did not debate in meetings. He dictated. Besides, there was nothing to debate at Bamberg. He already knew the answers and just needed to remind people how this rather remarkable organization was actually organized: around him, personally, and not around a program or idea.
It stated, exhibiting confusion over terminology, that Many scholars argue that it was at this point that Hitler gained true control of the Nazi party, while others argue he did not have full power until the late 1930s when he finally had control of the Reichswehr, at which point he still did not have control of the German economy. Of course, control of the army and the economy have nothing to do with "true control of the Nazi party." The Nazi party was (at least in 1926) a private political organization, and a rather puny one to boot. Control of that party was simply a pre-condition to control of the German state, a public institution that included all Germans and all Germany and that also (when broadly defined) encompassed the army and the economy. The scholarly opinions cited are simply not in opposition to each other. (The real question was how thoroughly the Bamberg conference left Hitler in control of the party per se.)
